Saturday, June 30, 2012

THE NATURAL SELECTION AND ADAPTATION THEORY: Can We Consider a Speculative Theory as Truth?




Philippine Eagle
The cornerstone of the Theory of Evolution of Charles Darwin is the natural selection. This idea within the Evolution theory was an adaptation of the “survival of the fittest” theory of Thomas Robert Malthus in his famous work An Essay on the Principle of Population. The natural selection is defined as the process in which from one generation to the next, the struggle for resources (Darwin called this as “struggle for existence”) will favor individual creatures with some variations over others and thereby change the frequency of traits within the population. Moreover, the traits that confer an advantage to those individuals who leave more offspring are called adaptations.[1] It rests on complex suppositions. Some theorize that individual organisms adapted to their environment and this equipped them with certain features for survival and reproduction, citing for example the case of the giraffes on how they develop long necks. However, some opine that the natural selection does not try to supply what an organism “needs”, for example, that a snake would eventually develop wings to avoid its predators. It means that the organisms do not constantly have a progressive development. They deny that the natural selection produces “perfection” to the organisms. They speculate instead that the natural selection is the simple result of variation, differential reproduction, and heredity. For them, it is a mindless, goalless, and mechanistic process.  


Philippine Tarsiers
But for Charles Darwin, the formation of the new species is the result of the natural selection through which favorable variations or the well-adapted organisms would tend to preserve, while those unfavorable ones would be destroyed or doomed to extinction. The natural selection is the theory that accounts for the divergence of species from common ancestors and thus for the endless diversity of life. This means that as individual organism adapt to their environment, each organism separately or independently change itself, creating new species. If this true then there should be different innumerable species. The evolutionists will surely retort that this will not happen in a lifetime but in a span of million years. Let us take as an example that of the dinosaurs. They appeared and roamed on earth approximately 230 years ago, and became the dominant terrestrial animals for 135 million years. They became extinct 65 million years ago. The extinction may not be a result of adaptation and natural selection since they were the undisputed predators. The widely accepted theory presupposes that all dinosaurs became extinct as a result of a meteor crash on earth. But according to the Wikipedia, the birds survived the extinction event that occurred 65 million years ago, and that these birds continue the dinosaur lineage to the present day. If this true, then there is no evolution in this case, but devolution. How do the gigantic, fierce dinosaurs “evolve” into the birds we know today? 


Philippine Spotted Deer
On the other hand, Ayala opines that the natural selection increases the frequency of the genotypes that have better biological efficacy and that efficacy and adaptation must frequently go together because if it is the other way life on earth would have been extinct a long time ago. According to this theory, furthermore, in order for natural selection to operate on a trait, the trait must possess heritable variation and must confer an advantage in the competition for resources.  If one of these requirements does not occur, then the trait does not experience natural selection.  If this is the case then the birds we have today could not be results of an evolution of the ancient dinosaurs for it would mean the loss of that superior biological efficacy.


Butanding
Here are some of the other limitations of natural selection.[2] The first is the lack of necessary genetic variation. It means that the natural selection can only operate on the genetic material already present in a population of organisms. It cannot create new genetic information and subsequently change one kind of organism into another.[3] The second limitation according to the article Understanding Evolution is the constraints due to history. It explains that the basic body form of mammals is already laid out in their genes and development in such a mutually constrained way that is unlikely to be altered. The third limitation is the trade- offs according to which changing one feature for the better might change another for the worse. The example of this is that longer legs would mean greater speed but it could be hazardously delicate, that is, easily breakable.


Philippine Civet
Just like in the Theory of Evolution in its totality, there are varied and even contradictory opinions. Moreover, there are a lot of inconsistencies in them. Many theories oppose each other and refute the validity of each other. But the different theories on Evolution collectively agree on the thesis that life is a ramification from a common ancestor through gradual genetic changes for million years. But one question that the Evolution theory could not satisfactorily answer is how do human beings develop their rationality, their capacity of decision-making, their culture, etc. Is the rational nature of man a result of the adaptation and natural selection? Will snails, worms, or even planktons have a rational nature million years from now? Will they be developed into rational beings? The answers to these questions here will just be based on mere speculations.


Philippine Tamaraw
If natural selection produces changes in the genetic composition of a population from one generation to the next, then organisms become better adapted to their environment, does it mean that there will be constant and endless change of species? If human beings have the same ancestors with the apes, does it mean that the monkeys and apes that we have today come from ancient primates that failed to evolve? But evolution means to have superior biological efficacy. Failure to evolve means extinction. How come there still exist animals of lower forms? Do their ancestors failed to evolve, and how come they continue to exist? This theory could never unlock the mystery of life. Though valuable in science, a theory that remains on the level of speculation should never be considered as truth.




Charles Darwin





[1] Evolution and Natural Selection @ www.globalchange.umich.edu.
[2] www.evolution.berkeley.edu.
[3] www.icr.org/natural-selection/

LA ÉTICA DE BARUCH SPINOZA: DEL PODER DEL ENTENDIMIENTO O DE LA LIBERTAD HUMANA


Lake Balinsasayaw, Negros Oriental, Philippines
Spinoza afirma que para vivir según la razón es vivir en libertad, y no vivir en la servidumbre  o esclavitud a las emociones. Si actuamos de acuerdo a la razón, entonces nos dejamos guiar por el amor y buena voluntad, y no por el miedo o el odio. Sostiene que la razón puede controlar las emociones. La razón es la virtud y, la virtud es el amor hacia Dios. Cuanto más amamos a Dios, tanto más somos capaces de controlar las emociones. Cuanto mejor control de nuestras emociones, mejor podemos comprender a Dios. Para él, la más activa es el alma, cuanto más se conoce adecuadamente Dios. La más pasiva es el alma, la menos adecuada que conoce a Dios. La más activa es el alma, es más capaz de evitar las emociones que son malas. La más pasiva es el alma, más se acepta a las emociones son malas. Aquí parece que Spinoza defiende un determinado tipo de ascetismo, pero sin considerar el cuerpo como un mal o un objeto que debe ser disciplinado o para ser sometido. Son las emociones  o los afectos que deben ser  controlados. Sin embargo, si analizamos bien su tesis, podemos concluir que Spinoza pertenece a la larga tradición que se remonta a los estoicos y, finalmente, a Sócrates, quien considera el conocimiento como un cierto tipo de libertad. Su tesis es muy parecida a Epitecto , un estoico que hizo hincapié en que "el campo más importante y urgente en especial de estudio es el que tiene que ver con las emociones fuertes ... penas, lamentos, envidias ... las pasiones que hacen que sea imposible para nosotros, incluso para escuchar a la razón."  También para Spinoza, el conocimiento es libertad, y todo lo que impide la adquisición o el logro del conocimiento es malo. Escribe él: “Un afecto es sólo malo o nocivo en cuanto que impide que el alma pueda pensar… puesto que la esencia del alma, es decir, su potencia consiste en el solo pensamiento” ( Prop. IX, demostración ). 


Mt. Pinatubo Crater Lake, Zambales, Philippines
¿Qué impide el alma para alcanzar su esencia? Spinoza responde que se trata de los malos afectos o las pasiones como la denomina. Pero lo que no explica es donde vienen estos malos afectos. Según él, “Un afecto que es una pasión es una idea confusa” ( Prop. III, demostracn), y “…deja de ser pasión tan pronto como nos formamos de él una idea clara y distinta” ” ( Prop. III ).  Pero, no apunta al cuerpo como la fuente de estos malos afectos o las pasiones, sino lo contrario: “…no hay afección alguna del cuerpo de la que no podamos formar un concepto claro y distinto,” y añade más, “Pues un afecto es la idea de una afección del cuerpo y, por ello debe implicar un concepto claro y distinto ( Prop. IV ). Si los buenos afectos son los que brotan de la razón, entonces, ¿de dónde salen o vienen  los malos afectos?  Así como lo explica, “Los afectos de la razón o que son suscitados por ella, si se toma en consideración el tiempo, son más potentes que los que se refieren a cosas singulares consideradas como ausentes.  No consideramos una cosa como ausente por obra del afecto con el que la imaginamos, sino en virtud del hecho de que el cuerpo experimenta otro afecto que la existencia de dicha cosa” ( Prop. VII ). Pero no tenemos una respuesta clara. Aparte de esta cuestión pendiente, tenemos también la duda sobre cómo Spinoza va a reconciliar la existencia del bien con la existencia del mal, o la verdad con la falsedad. Si Dios es la única sustancia e infinita, ¿cómo puede existir el mal? Si Dios es perfecto, ¿por qué hay  afectos nocivos, sufrimientos o pasiones? Si Dios es eterno, ¿por qué el cuerpo perece? Spinoza nos respuesta que el error y la falsedad vienen del conocimiento inadecuado de Dios. Y ¿Por qué Dios permite que esto suceda? Según él, el conocimiento del mal viene de las ideas inadecuadas, es decir, ideas que no se refieren a Dios adecuadamente. Pero también sostiene que todas las ideas se encuentran en Dios. Por lo tanto, nos preguntamos, ¿Por qué Dios permite a las ideas malas infiltrarse en sí mismo?


Lake Maughan, South Cotabato, Philippines
Otro aspecto que tenemos dudas es de la eternidad del alma que se elabora en la Proposición XXIII. Spinoza enuncia su doctrina del alma humana como ser en el sentido de un mortal, es decir, en la medida en que se une con el cuerpo algo que perece con el cuerpo, pero en otro sentido tener una especie de inmortalidad, es decir, en la medida en que es parte de la causa de la existencia del alma, es decir, Dios (o la Naturaleza), se debe, al igual que la totalidad de todo, sigue siendo inmutable e inmortal. La posición de Spinoza de que el alma debe sobrevivir por sí mismo cuando la vida del cuerpo ha terminado es una suposición ininteligible. Esto sugeriría que el alma es un individuo o una sustancia casi, es decir, más o menos independiente del cuerpo, en lugar de un aspecto distinguible de la actividad de un individuo, que es una persona. Esto parece ser una violación de la su misma contención anti-dualista de que el alma y el cuerpo son una y la misma cosa concebida bajo dos atributos diferentes. La esencia del cuerpo es eterna, según él mismo, ya que se basa en la esencia intemporal de Dios. Pero no podemos evitar a preguntar estas: cuando el cuerpo muere, ¿qué modo de extensión corresponde ahora al alma eterna que es ya inmortal? Spinoza responde que, mientras que el modo de extensión que es el cuerpo humano condicionado por el tiempo y el espacio perece, queda la esencia del cuerpo que se concibe bajo una forma de eternidad (sub specie aeternitatis) (Prop. XXII ). Al mismo tiempo, la parte sensible e imaginativa del alma perece con el cuerpo real. Entonces, la conclusión sería que el cuerpo y el alma son, en parte mortal y,  en parte inmortal.  ¿Esto sería posible?  Entonces, Spinoza contradice a sí mismo 


Lake Mainit, Surigao del Norte, Philippines
El otro problema es si el alma sobrevive a la destrucción del cuerpo, por lo tanto, debe haber otro tipo de existencia. Este tipo de existencia que debe ser diferente de la vida ordinaria con sus destinos temporales. Sin embargo, esta suposición estaría en contradicción con su propia creencia de que Dios es uno, o Dios lo es todo. Ya que para él, la esencia de un cuerpo como un modo extendido es en Dios bajo el atributo de extensión (sub specie aeternitatis)  ( Prop. XXII ). ¿Esto significaría que Dios es eterno y al mismo tiempo perece o que se somete a la muerte?


Lake Danao, Cebu ( Camotes Islands ), Philippines
Según unos comentarios, la eternidad de la mens que habla aquí Spinoza no es una infinita duración o como tal se concibe en las religiones tradicionales.  La eternidad que habla aquí Spinoza  es una especie de transición de algo temporal, una existencia sin fin continúa en algo atemporal e intrínseca. Pero su tesis es: Deus sive Natura y Dios es eternal. Pero hay algo de la natura que perece. Por lo tanto, para él, la eternidad sería volver a la nada. Es similar al nirvana en el budismo. La eternidad es el no tiempo, la nada. Con esta idea, podemos calificar a Spinoza como un ateo. 


CONCLUSIÓN

Hinatuan Enchanted River, Surigao del Sur, Philippines
La ética es una rama de la filosofía que se ocupa de la moralidad de los actos humanos. Se profundiza en los conceptos como el bien y el mal, lo correcto y lo incorrecto, lícitas e ilícitas, la virtud y el vicio. Sólo podemos hablar de un acto moral o inmoral, cuando un ser humano es libre, es decir, su razón y la voluntad están libres de obstáculos. Pero la pregunta es, ¿podemos tener una ética si todo, incluso los seres humanos, es parte de la naturaleza que se considera como Dios?


Lake Taal, Batangas, Philippines
Spinoza entendió bien y el mal como conceptos relativos, afirmando que no hay nada intrínsecamente bueno o malo, excepto en relación con un individuo en particular. Cosas que habían sido clásicamente considerado como bueno o malo, Spinoza argumentó, eran simplemente buenas o malas para los humanos. Entonces, podemos calificar a Spinoza como un precursor del relativismo. Además, Spinoza cree en un universo determinista en el que "todas las cosas en la naturaleza proceden de cierta (definida ) necesidad y con la máxima perfección."  Entonces, ¿podemos tener una ética si todas las cosas, incluso los seres humanos, están determinadas por necesidad, si no hay libertad?


Según Schopenhauer que la doctrina ética de Spinoza se puede valorar en esta:  'El mundo se debe a que es, y es como es porque es así. ... Sin embargo, la deificación del mundo ... no admite ninguna ética verdadera y, además, estaba en flagrante contradicción con los males físicos y la maldad moral de este mundo. " Entonces, podemos concluir que Baruch Spinoza elabora una doctrina de ética sin ética .

Baruch Spinoza
                                    

ARISTOTLE’S ΕΠΙΣΤΕΜΕ




Amanpulo, Palawan, Philippines
It is difficult indeed to make conclusions if one does not have a clear basis from which to conclude, just like in the case of the epistemology of Aristotle or how Aristotle understood episteme. There have been a lot of interpretations regarding this matter. The Greek philosopher did not leave any particular work that deals especially with this, as C.C.W.  Taylor confirmed: “In contrast with Plato, none of Aristotle’s major works has its central topic the nature of knowledge in general.”[1] In Posterior Analytics we may find some discussions about this topic of knowledge, but here Aristotle drew a number of distinctions and the liberal use of terms that spur debates until the present day.


I.             ΕΠΙΣΤΕΜΕ: A SCIENTIFIC KNOWLEDGE?

Caramoan, Camarines Sur, Philippines
What is ἐπιστήμη to Aristotle? Among the modern commentators of Aristotle, many understand it as “scientific knowledge” while others, like Burnyeat, consider it as some special cognitive state or “understanding” as opposed to a simple knowledge.  What is the difference between “scientific knowledge” and “understanding” then? The Greek term ἐπιστήμη which Aristotle himself was analyzing, according to Burnyeat, can refer either to the cognitive state of the knowing person or to a body of knowledge or  a science- a system of propositions which can be learned and known.[2] Many Aristotelian commentators, like Taylor, translate this term as “scientific knowledge.” Scientific knowledge is a knowledge accumulated by systematic study and organized by general principles. It is usually attained by demonstration. Biology, for example, is a scientific knowledge or science about the living things especially with reference to their origin, growth, reproduction, structure, and behavior. It may answer questions like: Why do horses sleep standing up? The acquisition of knowledge in this discipline is through experiments and demonstrations. It does not explain though why they have life, which is the common principle among living matters. Burnyeat, however, refuted the traditional English translation of Aristotelian episteme as “scientific knowledge”. According to him, the results this produces can be ambiguous and puzzling.[3] And we will know why. And he also emphasizes that there is no Greek word or term that corresponds to the modern term “scientific”. By scientific we mean “systematic or accurate in manner”.  For his part, Taylor refuses to translate the Greek terms sophia and nous as ‘wisdom’ and ‘intelligence’ respectively because, according to him, this would be uninformative, or even worse, misleading. But he does not hesitate to translate episteme as scientific knowledge. Burnyeat, as we know, questions this translation.


Unmnamed islet, Cebu, Philippines
Burnyeat argues that “Aristotle first advances a quite general thesis about a cognitive state” which the Greek thinker himself calls ἐπἰστασϑαι, that “in its unqualified version this involves knowing the cause or explanation of something and knowing its necessity”, and that from this “one can have ἐπιστήμη of is that which cannot be otherwise.”[4] Burnyeat distinguishes ἐπἰστασϑαι from ἐπιστήμη. Burnyeat speaks of two phases or modes of the cognitive state which are distinct but complementary.  This will help to clarify the issue. Burnyeat, moreover, assures that Aristotle gives the main characteristic of the cognitive state: “it centrally involves the possession of apodeictic proof or demonstration.”[5] By apodeictic we mean that is unquestionably or necessarily true. It means that the cognitive state possesses what is necessarily true. 


Bellaroca, Marinduque, Philippines
He criticizes G.R.G. Mure’s translation (“the premises of demonstrated knowledge”) for he believes that a cognitive state cannot be demonstrated nor it has premises. He says that “these attributes belong to knowledge in the other sense of what is known,” and he further clarifies, “to the propositions making up the body of science.”[6] We may understand Burnyeat’s argument in this simple logic: If we suppose that ἐπἰστασϑαι is a cognitive state, but a cognitive state cannot be demonstrated nor it has premises, therefore the ἐπἰστασϑαι cannot be demonstrated nor it has premises. In other words, if we accept this thesis of Burnyeat (“A cognitive state cannot be said to be demonstrated, nor does it have premises”), therefore the cognitive state denotes a knowledge that is evident, necessary, and universal. Burnyeat’s argument, we believe, is very much in line with Aristotle’s idea that there is no distinction between what one perceives and what is being perceived. The ἐπἰστασϑαι could consequently  mean the act of knowing itself or the sensory experience that gives us direct and immediate knowledge of the objects while episteme is a kind of special cognitive state.


Dimakya, Palawan, Philippines
What is evident and necessary does not need any demonstration because a demonstration is given in order to clarify things. By demonstration we mean an act or circumstance of proving or being proved conclusively as by reasoning or a show of evidence. What is evident is clear in itself and does not need any instrument to represent, to explain, or to prove itself. We say that scientific knowledge is acquired through demonstration since we need proofs or even empirical experiments like in the case of experimental sciences. Scientific knowledge then does not delve on what is evident but tries to impart information through proofs or demonstrations. Through this, we may understand why Burnyeat says that demonstration and premises belong to a body of science. We have that common knowledge, for example, that the sun rises in the east and sets in the west. This knowledge is evident. It does not need any demonstration. It becomes a scientific knowledge when we try to explain why this phenomenon happens or occurs. For this we have a scientific knowledge or a science about the heavenly objects, the astronomy. He continues explaining, “The things which are true, primary, etc. are indeed expressed as the premises of demonstration, but the dependence in question here is the epistemological relation of the cognitive state to its grounds, not the logical relation of conclusion to premises.” [7] What he means here is that what is true or necessary is evidence or proof in itself. Therefore, the thesis of Taylor: “There is no episteme of the principles of knowledge” is correct or true if episteme here refers to scientific knowledge.  


Hundred Islands, Pangasinan, Philippines
Aristotle opines: “All instruction given or received by way of argument proceeds from pre-existent knowledge.”[8] If knowledge is demonstrative then the premises prior to it are known than it. It means that the premises are themselves primary, immediate, and prior to. Burnyeat, thus, asserts: “Demonstrative ἐπιστήμη depends on things which are true, primary, immediate, better known than and prior to and explanatory of the conclusion.”[9] We are quite sure then that Aristotle’s “pre-existent” knowledge does not mean scientific knowledge. That “pre-existent” knowledge of Aristotle could not be demonstrated. If it could be demonstrated, then there is another “pre-existent” knowledge prior to it, and so on and so forth. We will end up in a vicious cycle. Thus, if all knowledge is demonstrative, then there is no knowledge per se. If all knowledge needs proof or evidence, then that proof or evidence is some kind of possession of knowledge or, we say, a “prior” knowledge. We do agree with Burnyeat’s conclusion: “Because ἐπιστήμη involves grasping the demonstration of necessary conclusions, it is grounded epistemologically on the premises of that demonstration.”[10] We, therefore, assert that not all knowledge is demonstrative.


Sunken Cemetery, Camiguin, Philippines
Taylor, on the other hand, asserts that episteme is a demonstrative state. By this he means that a human being knows when he believes something and the principles or the premises are known or presented to him. Citing the Nicomachean Ethics, he states that “what is grasped by episteme is what is demonstrated, and since there have to be first principles of demonstration, there is no episteme of the principles of knowledge.[11] To prove that there is no knowledge or episteme of the principles of knowledge, Taylor explains  that the principles of demonstration cannot be themselves demonstrated  because if ever there is this possibility, then the principles of demonstration must be known and must be known other than by demonstration. The inconsistency of Taylor is this: if we acquire episteme by demonstration, then we must know beforehand the premises or principles of that demonstration. If we say that knowledge is acquired through reasoning, then there must be a demonstration, but the premises themselves are conclusions of the demonstration. Therefore not all knowledge is demonstrative. We can conclude then that not all episteme is scientific. 


Tawi-Tawi, Philippines
Moreover, Taylor identifies episteme as one of the theoretical cognitive states together with the sophia. He states that theoretical knowledge is restricted to knowledge of the universal necessary truths, but later says that demonstrative knowledge (episteme) is restricted to what we can explain. But universal necessary truths do not need any explanation. What is universal and necessary is proof in itself. In the other part, he says that “… episteme, phronesis, sophia, and nous are described as ‘those in which we possess the truth and are never mistaken.”[12]  It is indeed true that there can be no error in knowledge of what is evident. The knowledge of what is evident can never commit any error, since the evidence is the truth itself. Errors or mistakes could occur in the demonstration. So it would be a mistake to translate episteme as scientific knowledge if this latter denotes explanation or show of evidence. Scientific knowledge, though tries to be systematic and accurate, is still prone to error or mistake. Biology, Chemistry, and other sciences do not necessarily impart truth.  The principles of these sciences are justified through results of experiments which are prone to mistake or error, therefore, changeable and contingent.


Bucas Grande, Surigao del Sur, Philippines
In the other part of his work, Taylor states this: “Aristotle contrasts episteme properly so called (i.e. scientific knowledge) with perceptual episteme.”[13] But he insists that only ‘explanatory’ knowledge ( i.e. scientific knowledge ) of a phenomenon, that is, knowing in the full sense why that phenomenon occurs, is worthy to be called episteme, or in his own words, “dignified by the term episteme[14] He admits that explanatory knowledge presupposes a prior knowledge, “knowledge that it occurs.” He believes, however, that this kind of knowledge is incomplete. Its completion comes only when one has an explanation of the phenomenon. To qualify this acquisition as knowledge, one must know the explanation of this phenomenon. For him, only when we come to understand through explanation that we can have a complete knowledge that is worthy to be called episteme. Taylor, however, forgets that this kind of knowledge is “perfect” in itself since it is indubitable and certain. It is a knowledge of what is evident and true.


We oppose Taylor’s thesis- ‘explanatory’ knowledge (scientific knowledge) is the ‘true’ knowledge- because this knowledge could not be knowledge at all since it is prone to error or mistake. In order to be a true knowledge, it must be assured of foregone conclusion, which the scientific knowledge may not have. We believe that knowledge consists in knowing being or truth since it is impossible to know what is not.


II.          ΕΠΙΣΤΕΜΕ AS UNDERSTANDING

Boracay, Aklan, Philippines
If ἐπιστήμηis not scientific knowledge, what does Aristotle mean of it? Can we simply call it “knowledge”? Burnyeat believes that for Aristotle, episteme is not knowledge as understood in philosophy. What is episteme then? He thinks that Aristotle’s episteme is best understood as “understanding.” One could understand a thing or fact if that thing or fact is explained. For example, it is a common knowledge that it is day when the sun appears, and it is night when the sun disappears and darkness reigns. Even a young child knows this, but when this phenomenon is explained to him, he may acquire a “deeper” knowledge, not just a “mere” or “immediate” knowledge. Since there is no exact term that could capture or embody this kind of knowledge in English language, Burnyeat prefers to use the term ‘understanding’. 


Coron, Palawan, Philippines
What would be the consequences if we translate episteme as understanding, not as scientific knowledge? Knowledge is generally understood today as justified true belief.  According to Burnyeat, “justification is expressed in argument to show that a proposition is true.”[15] He further adds that the argument needs not to be deductive. If ever it is deductive, he continues, it is not even a requirement for Aristotle in order to explain from first principles why the proposition is true.[16] This means that the demonstration from the first principles is not a requirement of justification but of scientific explanation. From this, Burnyeat deduces that “explanation and understanding go together in a way that explanation and knowledge do not.”[17] According to him, he does not want to provoke controversy with this remark. But with a deeper analysis of his argument, this is somewhat true. There is no need to explain a fact if the other knows it, but there is a need to explain so that that other could understand. John Barnes translates a part of Aristotle’s Posterior Analytics this way: “We think we understand a thing simpliciter ( and not in the sophistic fashion incidentally) whenever we think we are aware both that the explanation because of which the object is is its explanation, and that it is not possible for this to be otherwise.”[18] Understanding, therefore, depends on explanation (not the way Taylor understands it). What we receive and gain from knowledge is understanding. Using the analogy of teaching, Burnyeat clearly explains, “Teaching in the sense of imparting knowledge to people who did not have it before must normally include citing of evidence and justification.”[19] Citing evidence and justification denotes explanation. He adds, “But teaching may also be designed to impart understanding of knowledge which the pupils already have, or a deeper understanding of a science which they already have some acquaintance with but in an unsystematic way.”[20] Episteme, then, as understanding denotes a possession of knowledge or grasping the demonstration of necessary conclusions.


III.       CONCLUSION

Miniloc, Palawan, Philippines
The issue about the notion of ἐπιστήμη in Aristotle remains to be open for debate. There are different translations and interpretations of Aristotle’s texts. We beg to disagree, however, with the translation of episteme as scientific knowledge or simply as knowledge. If episteme indicates the end or completion of the epistemological process, as Burnyeat concludes,[21] then it could not be scientific knowledge. Moreover, it is absurd to say “one knows what he knows”, rather we say “one understands what he knows”. The term ἐπιστήμη then could not be simply called “knowledge”. If episteme denotes achievement or possession of its end (knowledge), the term ‘understanding’ would be the appropriate word in English as equivalent to Aristotle’s ἐπιστήμη. Since there is no knowledge about knowledge, what we could have is the understanding of that knowledge, that is, having or possessing a “deeper” knowledge. We do agree, then, with Burnyeat that Aristotle´s ἐπιστήμη means “understanding”.

Aristotle
                                            



[1] C.C.W. Taylor, Aristotle’s Epistemology, p.116
[2] M.F. Burnyeat, Aristotle on Understanding Knowledge, p.97
[3] Op. cit.
[4] Op. cit. p.98
[5] Op.  cit.
[6] Op. cit. p.99
[7] Op. cit. p. 99
[8] Aristotle, Posterior Analytics, I.1
[9] Op. cit.
[10] Burnyeat, p. 99
[11] C.C.W. Taylor, Aristotle’s Epistemology, p.119
[12] Op. cit., p.118
[13] Op. Cit., p.118
[14] Taylor, p.122
[15] Burnyeat, p. 101
[16] Op. cit.
[17] Op. cit. p. 102
[18] Aristotle’s Posterior Analytics, Oxford 1975.
[19] Burnyeat, p. 117
[20] Op. cit., pp. 117, 118
[21] Op. cit., p.133